Topic > Civil disobedience to Antigone - 1951

Could her act of defiance be considered civil disobedience? “Civil disobedience is an attempt to bring about a change in law or government policy by violating a law deemed immoral, unconstitutional, or irreligious… in the tradition of civil disobedience, the purpose of violating a law, as a form of protest, is was to appeal to the conscience of the community to have the injustice recognized and the law repealed... This goal in civil disobedience is almost always associated with the disobedient's efforts to disavow personal complicity with an unjust system supported by obedience to the unjust law . There must be a sufficiently clear and logical connection between the law or policy that is being protested and the law that is being violated.” (Churchill 66-67) Assuming that Antigone's disobedience to the law could be considered civil disobedience may not be entirely accurate because, although it was nonviolent and for the greater good, its purpose was not necessarily to “appeal to the conscience of the community in seeing the injustice recognized and the law repealed." His motive wasn't necessarily to make a change. However, the law was proving to be irreligious. Antigone wanted to do what she wanted because she felt that the gods and her family who had died before her would be happy. His reasons are directly tied to his family and his faith, and he challenges the government for more important reasons than trying to stir up trouble. He makes his choice for personal reasons